If my ex-wife signed a non-contested divorce 4 years ago and I plan to sell the marital home now, is she entitled to the proceeds?
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If my ex-wife signed a non-contested divorce 4 years ago and I plan to sell the marital home now, is she entitled to the proceeds?
She has never paid taxes/mortgage/insurance and is not on the note but she is on the deed.
Asked on January 9, 2013 under Family Law, Pennsylvania
Answers:
FreeAdvice Contributing Attorney / FreeAdvice Contributing Attorney
Answered 11 years ago | Contributor
Whether or not your "ex" is entitled to any of the proceeds of the marital home that you have written about depends upon what the presumed marital settlement agreement states. As such, you need to carefully read all court orders and agreements signed by you and the "ex" and your answer will be there.
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